the average value of data generated by function 'randn' is not zero

1 commentaire

Stephen23
Stephen23 le 27 Nov 2017
Modifié(e) : Stephen23 le 27 Nov 2017
It doesn't have to be. What would you expect for a random sample of one?

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 Réponse acceptée

Walter Roberson
Walter Roberson le 27 Nov 2017

0 votes

Any one call to randn() is a finite sampling of the infinite distribution. The mean of 0 is statistical, not guaranteed for any finite subset.
If it were otherwise, imagine doing randn(1,1): in order for the mean of that sampling to be 0 each randn(1,1) would have to return 0. For randn(1,2) with two values being generated, both would have to be 0 or the two would have to be exact negatives of each other.
You can do statistical modeling to figure out the probability of the mean of a finite sampling being more than any given value.

Plus de réponses (2)

Guillaume
Guillaume le 27 Nov 2017

0 votes

For some reason, my dice don't work either. I've thrown them many times, yet the mean value is not exactly 3.5.
>> mean(randn(1, 1e8))
ans =
-1.9019e-04
Pretty close to zero if you ask me. You'll only get exactly zero if you call randn an infinite number of times (or you're really lucky)
Binbin Zhang
Binbin Zhang le 27 Nov 2017

0 votes

Thanks a lot, got it.

1 commentaire

David Goodmanson
David Goodmanson le 27 Nov 2017
Somebody should mention that if you take N samples from a distribution with standard deviation 1, then the standard deviation of the N-sample mean is 1/sqrt(N). So in Guillaume's example with N = 1e8, you would expect an answer down around 1e-4, which is what happened.

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