Numerical evaluation of integral gives warning message
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Dear all,
I am trying to compute the following integral in MATLAB:
with corresponding code is:
p1_minusSign = @(r) exp(-2*pi * integral(@(x) x/(1-x^4/r^4), r, Inf, 'ArrayValued', 1)) * exp(-pi*r^2)*2*pi*r;
p2_minusSign = integral(p1_minusSign, 0, Inf, 'ArrayValued', 1),
Unfortunately, MATLAB gives me a bunch of warning messages of the following form: "Warning: Minimum step size reached near x = 5833.72. There may be a singularity, or the tolerances may be too tight for this problem."
As far as I can tell, I don't see any potential singularity in my expression. In contrast, if we just change the sign in the demoninator of the inside integral, it computes perfectly:
with corresponding code:
p1_plusSign = @(r) exp(-2*pi * integral(@(x) x/(1+x^4/r^4), r, Inf, 'ArrayValued', 1)) * exp(-pi*r^2)*2*pi*r;
p2_plusSign = integral(p1_plusSign, 0, Inf, 'ArrayValued', 1),
Any ideas on what the error might be and how to correct it?
Many thanks in advance for your help.
8 commentaires
Torsten
le 27 Juin 2018
Shouldn't the limits of the integral in the exp(...) expression be x=0 to x=r instead of x=r to x=Inf ?
Réponses (2)
John D'Errico
le 27 Juin 2018
Modifié(e) : John D'Errico
le 27 Juin 2018
Ignoring the fact that you cannot just factor out -1 from that term in the integral, and get what you think you got, we have the added problem that your inner integral is not even finite.
syms x r
K = x/(1 - x^4/r^4)
K =
-x/(x^4/r^4 - 1)
Now, pick some arbitrary value for r. Lets say 1.
int(subs(K,r,1),[1,inf])
ans =
-Inf
But if you change the denominator in the simple way that is NOT mathematically correct, as you wrote, then it is of course finite, as expected.
K2 = x/(1 + x^4/r^4)
K2 =
x/(x^4/r^4 + 1)
int(subs(K2,r,1),[1,inf])
ans =
pi/8
There is a fundamental difference between those two kernels. So, K2 is a mountain that we can indeed climb. (Sorry about that. Could not resist it.) It would probably be a HW assignment in first year calc, to show the former case is not finite?
Anyway, the answer is your problem lacks a finite solution.
9 commentaires
John D'Errico
le 28 Juin 2018
And my point is, you cannot compute the inner integral numerically. It is inf. Once it becomes inf, nothing you do with the result will be usable.
Walter Roberson
le 28 Juin 2018
With the +1 the inner integral goes to
(1/4)*r^2*ln((2*r+1)/(2*r^2+2*r+1))
As r goes to infinity the ratio goes to 0, leading to ln(0) which is negative infinity. But you have exp(-2*pi*that) so you are getting exp(infinity)
Walter Roberson
le 28 Juin 2018
Maple says that the inner integral is infinite for non-negative r.
When you substitute that in to the outer expression, you get
int(exp(-Pi*r^2)*r*infinity, r, 0, infinity)
The exp(-Pi*r^2) term is nonnegative, and r is nonnegative, so we can see by inspection that the result will be infinity.
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